13 December 2017

HP Subordinate Allied Services-2016 Question Paper with Answers [Part-2]

HP Subordinate Allied Services Prelims Test Series [12 Full Length Tests] with Answers
101.  India born Sundar Pichai is the Chief Executive Officer (C.E.O.) of:
(A)        Google
(B)        Yahoo
(C)        Apple
(D)       EBay
Answer: Google
102.  ‘Wheat blast’ is a:
(A)        process of grinding
(B)        process of separating
(C)        process of breaking
(D)       disease caused by fungus
Answer: disease caused by fungus
103.  The term ‘one hundred heartbeat club’ refers to:
(A)        individual species whose overall population is under or at 100
(B)        species whose heartbeat is 100 per sec.
(C)        species whose heartbeat is < 100 per sec.
(D)       one hundred species whose heartbeat is same.
Answer: individual species whose overall population is under or at 100
104.  Stone fly is an indicator of:
(A)        Soil pollution
(B)        Water pollution
(C)        Air pollution
(D)       Noise pollution
Answer: Water pollution
105.  Planet Mercury’s transit across the sun observable from earth was first predicted by:
(A)        Newton
(B)        Galileo
(C)        Kepler
(D)       Einstein
Answer: Kepler
106.  Which of the following countries does not celebrate Mother’s day on 8th May?
(A)        Belgium
(B)        Australia
(C)        Spain
(D)       Canada
Answer: Spain
107.  The first female Chancellor of Germany, Angela Merkel’s present term in office is:
(A)        4th
(B)        3rd
(C)        2nd
(D)       5th
Answer: 3rd
108.  ‘Pink Ghettoes’ is a term about:
(A)        female representation in corporate sector
(B)        women slums
(C)        slums without electric power and water
(D)       crime affected urban areas
Answer: female representation in corporate sector
109.  Trupti Desai is a:
(A)        Gender equality activist
(B)        Poetess
(C)        Novelist
(D)       Kathak dancer
Answer: Gender equality activist
110.  The goodwill ambassador of ‘UN Development Fund for Women’ is:
(A)        Meryl Streep
(B)        Priyanka Chopra
(C)        Belinda Gates
(D)       Nicole Kidman
Answer: Nicole Kidman
 HP Subordinate Allied Services Prelims Test Series [12 Full Length Tests] with Answers
111.  Which lady Head of State is facing impeachment in her country?
(A)        Tsai-Ing-Wen
(B)        Park Geun-hye
(C)        Dilma Rousseff
(D)       Sheikh Hasina
Answer: Dilma Rousseff
112.  Which country has maximum number of women parliamentarians?
(A)        Sweden
(B)        Finland
(C)        Norway
(D)       Denmark
Answer: Sweden
113.  Nirbhaya Act came into existence in the year:
(A)        2012
(B)        2013
(C)        2014
(D)       2015
Answer: 2013
114.  Kiran Mazumdar Shaw is the CEO of which company?
(A)        Biocon
(B)        Sun Pharma
(C)        Wipro
(D)       United Spirits
Answer: Biocon
115.  This year, what was the theme of International Women’s Day?
(A)        Empowering women, empowering humanity
(B)        Pledge for parity
(C)        Make it happen
(D)       Equality for women is progress for all
Answer: Pledge for parity
116.  The first country to have set up a bank, especially for women, is:
(A)        Pakistan
(B)        Sweden
(C)        Tanzania
(D)       India
Answer: Pakistan
117.  At present, how many biodiversity hotspots are there in the world?
(A)        12
(B)        24
(C)        31
(D)       34
Answer: 34
118.  Deepika Karmakar, the first ever Indian gymnast to qualify for Olympics belongs to the state of:
(A)        Tripura
(B)        Mizoram
(C)        Maharashtra
(D)       Karnataka
Answer: Tripura
119.  Which of the following tennis players has been found guilty of doping?
(A)        Victoria Azarenka
(B)        Serena Williams
(C)        Maria Sharapova
(D)       Rafael Nadal
Answer: Maria Sharapova
120.  Identify India’s goodwill ambassador for Olympic games:
(A)        Sania Nehwal
(B)        Shahrukh Khan
(C)        Amitabh Bachchan
(D)       Sachin Tendulkar
121.  Which team has not won the T20 World Cup in cricket so far?
(A)        Australia
(B)        Pakistan
(C)        Sri Lanka
(D)       England
Answer: Australia
122.  The book ‘Ace against Odds’ is based on the biography of which sports personality?
(A)        Serena Williams
(B)        Sania Mirza
(C)        Vijay Amritraj
(D)       Venus Williams
Answer: Sania Mirza
123.  Who is the first Indian player to win All England Badminton Championship?
(A)        Prakash Padukone
(B)        Pullela Gopichand
(C)        Sania Nehwal
(D)       Nandu Natekar
Answer: Prakash Padukone
124.  Which bollywood film got the Oscar award for best film this year?
(A)        Brooklyn
(B)        Room
(C)        Spotlight
(D)       Mad Max Fury Road
Answer: Spotlight
125.  Which of the following film personalities has been given Dada Saheb Phalke Award for his contribution to Indian film industry?
(A)        Dharmendra
(B)        Rishi Kapoor
(C)        Aditya Chopra
(D)       Manoj Kumar
Answer: Manoj Kumar
126.  For the best actor (female) category, the National Film Award, 2016 winner is:
(A)        Kangana Ranaut
(B)        Priyanka Chopra
(C)        Vidya Balan
(D)       Kareena Kapoor
Answer: Kangana Ranaut
127.  World Ozone Day is celebrated on:
(A)        5th June
(B)        23rd April
(C)        16th September
(D)       19th September
Answer: 16th September
128.  NSDC is an acronym for:
(A)        National Skill Development Corporation
(B)        National Science Development Council
(C)        National Sustainable Development Council
(D)       National Science Dissemination Center
Answer: National Skill Development Corporation
129.  “Unnat Bharat Abhiyan” is related to:
(A)        Rural upliftment
(B)        quality improvement in higher education
(C)        research and innovation in industrial sector
(D)       cleaner transport in urban areas
Answer: Rural upliftment
130.  The theme of National Technology Day, 2016 was:
(A)        Skilling India
(B)        Digital empowerment of India
(C)        Technology enablers for clean India
(D)       Technology enablers of start-up India
Answer: Technology enablers of start-up India
 HP Subordinate Allied Services Prelims Test Series [12 Full Length Tests] with Answers
131.  The minor daughter of Keshav Chandra Sen was married to a 16 year old Maharaja of which place?
(A)        Satara
(B)        Baroda
(C)        Cooch-Behar
(D)       Mysore
Answer: Cooch-Behar
132.  Which of the following is matched wrongly?
(A)        The Indian Universities Act – 1904
(B)        The Hunter Commission – 1882
(C)        The Wardha Scheme of Basic Education -1937
(D)       The Report of Sadler Commission – 1910
Answer: The Report of Sadler Commission – 1910
133.  Of the following, who was not a member of the Gurukul Party of Arya Samaj?
(A)        Pt. Lekh Ram
(B)        Mahatma Hans Raj
(C)        Pt. Guru Datt Vidyarthi
(D)       Lala Munshi Ram
Answer: Pt. Guru Datt Vidyarthi
134.  Who started the Ahmadiya Movement?
(A)        Mirza Ghulam Azad
(B)        Sir Sayyid Ahmad Khan
(C)        Sayyid Ahmad Barelwi
(D)       Rashid Ahmad Gangohi
Answer: Mirza Ghulam Azad
135.  Which of the following is correct about the work, Neel Darpan?
(A)        A novel in Bengali
(B)        A novel in Hindi
(C)        A play in Hind
(D)       A play in Bengali
Answer: A play in Bengali
136.  Of the following leaders of the Revolt of 1857, who is not matched correctly with his region?
(A)        Begum Hazrat Mahal- Lucknow
(B)        Khan Bahadur Khan – Mewat
(C)        Nana Sahib – Kanpur
(D)       Rani Lakshmi Bai – Jhansi
Answer: Khan Bahadur Khan – Mewat
137.  When was the Income Tax imposed by the Colonial Government in India?
(A)        1858
(B)        1865
(C)        1862
(D)       1860
Answer: 1860
138.  Of the following, who was not a member of Hindu Mahasabha?
(A)        Motilal Nehru
(B)        B.S. Munje
(C)        Lala Lajpat Rai
(D)       Madan Mohan Malviya
Answer: Motilal Nehru
139.  Who moved the main resolution on Non-Cooperation Movement in the annual session of Indian National Congress at Nagpur in 1920?
(A)        Motilal Nehru
(B)        Vallabhbhai Patel
(C)        C.R. Das
(D)       Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer: C.R. Das
140.  When was the Second Civil Disobedience Movement launched by the Indian National Congress?
(A)        1931
(B)        1932
(C)        1933
(D)       1934
141.  Which session of the Congress was presided over by Gandhiji?
(A)        Bombay
(B)        Ahmadabad
(C)        Calcutta
(D)       Belgam
Answer: Belgam
142.  In which Satyagraha, Gandhiji used the last weapon of hunger strike?
(A)        Ahmadabad Textile Mill Strike
(B)        Champaran Satyagraha
(C)        Kheda Satyagraha
(D)       The Khilafat Movement
Answer: Ahmadabad Textile Mill Strike
143.  Where was the first Indian Civil Services examination held in India?
(A)        Calcutta
(B)        Delhi
(C)        Varanasi
(D)       Allahabad
Answer: Allahabad
144.  Which name did Gandhiji give to his scheme of education?
(A)        New Education Policy
(B)        Wardha Scheme
(C)        Nai Talim
(D)       Mother-Tongue
Answer: Wardha Scheme
145.  From where did Gandhiji come across the three principles of his ideology?
(A)        Leo Tolstoy’s The kingdom of God is Within you
(B)        John Ruskin’s Unto This Last
(C)        Rousseaus’s Social Contract
(D)       Kathline Mayo’s Mother India
Answer: John Ruskin’s Unto This Last
146.  Gandhiji’s satyagrha is based on:
(A)        Truth and Non-violence
(B)        Ends and Means
(C)        Morality
(D)       All of the above
Answer: Truth and Non-violence
147.  Of the following, who was not the member of the Congress Socialist Party?
(A)        Jaya Prakash Narayan
(B)        Kartar Singh Sarabha
(C)        Acharya Narendra Dev
(D)       Minoo Masani
Answer: Kartar Singh Sarabha
148.  Where did not come to power the parallel governments during the Quit India Movement?
(A)        Surat
(B)        Ballia
(C)        Satara
(D)       Tamluk
Answer: Surat
149.  Atlee, the British Prime Minister made a statement in British Parliament that the Transfer of Power to India would take place on:
(A)        August 15, 1947
(B)        August 15, 1948
(C)        June 30, 1947
(D)       June 30, 1948
Answer: June 30, 1948
150.  Arrange the following Viceroys of India in chronological order:
(i) Lord Linlithgo
(ii) Lord Wavell
(iii) Lord Wellington
(iv) Lord Reading
Code:
(A)        (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(B)        (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(C)        (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(D)       (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
Answer: (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
 HP Subordinate Allied Services Prelims Test Series [12 Full Length Tests] with Answers
151.  Choose the right order from highest to lowest in terms of irrigation coverage:
(A)        Punjab, Haryana, U.P., Bihar
(B)        Punjab, Haryana, Bihar, U.P.
(C)        Haryana, Punjab, U.P., Bihar
(D)       Haryana, Punjab, Bihar, U.P.
Answer: Punjab, Haryana, U.P., Bihar
152.  As per RBI Annual Report 2012: which state has the least poverty?
(A)        Delhi
(B)        Tripura
(C)        Goa
(D)       Sikkim
Answer: Goa
153.  As per budget proposal (2016-17); Department of Disinvestment is to be renamed as:
(A)        DIPP
(B)        DIMM
(C)        DIPAM
(D)       DIPMT
Answer: DIPAM
154.  TRIPS and TRIMS are related to:
(A)        SAPTA
(B)        EU
(C)        NAFTA
(D)       GATT
Answer: GATT
155.  Efficient delivery of services through technology in India is well defined by:
(A)        NSDC –JAM
(B)        DBT- JAM
(C)        DBT-JMA
(D)       None of the above
Answer: DBT- JAM
156.  As per Census 2011, highest urban and highest rural population in India is respectively in the states of:
(A)        Maharashtra and Bihar
(B)        Tamil Nadu and Uttar Pradesh
(C)        Maharashtra and Uttar Pradesh
(D)       Tamil Nadu and Bihar
Answer: Maharashtra and Uttar Pradesh
157.  Who among the following did not estimate the incidence of poverty in India?
(A)        B.S. Minhas
(B)        Raj Krishna
(C)        P.K. Bardhan
(D)       Dandekar and Rath
Answer: Raj Krishna
158.  Antyodaya Day is celebrated on:
(A)        25th September
(B)        25th December
(C)        08th June
(D)       25th April
Answer: 25th September
159.  Which one is not the component of Bharat Nirman out of the following:
(A)        Sanitation
(B)        Rural Telephones
(C)        Drinking Water
(D)       Irrigation
Answer: Sanitation
160.  HRIDAY scheme is launched by:
(A)        Ministry of Cultural Affairs on 25th December, 2015
(B)        Ministry of Tourism on 26th January, 2015
(C)        Ministry of Health and Family Welfare on 21st January, 2015
(D)       Ministry of Urban Development on 21st January, 2015
Answer: Ministry of Urban Development on 21st January, 2015
HP Subordinate Allied Services Prelims Test Series [12 Full Length Tests] with Answers
161.  Which one of the following statements is incorrect with regard to the Preamble of Indian Constitution?
(A)        It is the soul of the Constitution
(B)        It vests power in the People of India
(C)        It defines state as Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Sectarian, Democratic, Republic
(D)       It can be amended by the Parliament
Answer: It defines state as Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Sectarian, Democratic, Republic
162.  Which one of the following is not stated in the Right to Freedom as enshrined in the Constitution of India?
(A)        Freedom of speech and expression
(B)        Freedom to assemble peacefully
(C)        Freedom to protest
(D)       Freedom to practice any profession
Answer: Freedom to protest
163.  By which constitutional amendment the right to property was abolished from the Chapter of Fundamental Rights?
(A)        1st Constitutional Amendment
(B)        25th Constitutional Amendment
(C)        42nd Constitutional Amendment
(D)       44th Constitutional Amendment
Answer: 44th Constitutional Amendment
164.  Match the following and choose the correct answer from the given codes:
(i) Finance Commission                               (1) Article 340
(ii) Union public Service Commission      (2) Article 324
(iii) Election Commission                             (3) Article 315
(iv) Commission for backward classes    (4) Article 280
Codes:
(A)        (i)-(3), (ii)-(1), (iii)-(4), (iv)-(2)
(B)        (i)-(4), (ii)-(3), (iii)-(2), (iv)-(1)
(C)        (i)-(4), (ii)-(2), (iii)-(3), (iv)-(1)
(D)       (i)-(1), (ii)-(2), (iii)-(3), (iv)-(4)
Answer: (i)-(4), (ii)-(3), (iii)-(2), (iv)-(1)
165.  Who among the following are not the members of the Electoral College for the President of India?
(A)        Elected Members of the legislative Assemblies of States
(B)        Elected Members of the Lok Sabha
(C)        Elected Members of the Rajya Sabha
(D)       Elected Members of the legislative Councils of States
Answer: Elected Members of the legislative Councils of States
166.  Which of the following is incorrect statement with regard to the Vice-President of India?
(A)        He acts as the President during the absence of the President
(B)        He is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(C)        He is elected by the Electoral College comprising Members of the Parliament
(D)       He can be removed from his office by impeachment
Answer: He can be removed from his office by impeachment
167.  The Rajya Sabha can delay the passage of the Money Bill for a maximum period of:
(A)        One week
(B)        Two weeks
(C)        One month
(D)       Indefinitely
Answer: Two weeks
168.  Which of the following is the correct chronological order of the offices held by the Speakers of Lok Sabha?
(A)        Ganesh Vasudev Mavlankar, Sardar Hukam Singh, Neelam Sanjiva Reddy, Sumitra Mahajan
(B)        Sardar Hukam Singh, Ganesh Vasudev Mavlankar, Neelam Sanjiva Reddy, Sumitra Mahajan
(C)        Neelam Sanjiva Reddy, Ganesh Vasudev Mavlankar, Sardar Hukam Singh, Sumitra Mahajan
(D)       Ganesh Vasudev Mavlankar, Sardar Hukam Singh, Sumitra Mahajan Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
Answer: Ganesh Vasudev Mavlankar, Sardar Hukam Singh, Neelam Sanjiva Reddy, Sumitra Mahajan
169.  Which one of the following is the biggest committee of the Lok Sabha?
(A)        Public Accounts Committee
(B)        Committee on Public Undertakings
(C)        Estimates Committee
(D)       Business Advisory Committee
Answer: Estimates Committee
170.  Which one of the following is incorrect statement with regard to Right to Freedom of Religion?
(A)        Freedom of Religion is listed from Articles 25-28 of the Constitution
(B)        Freedom of Religion includes right to profess, practice and propagates religion
(C)        Freedom of Religion gives freedom to establish religious institutions
(D)       Freedom of Religion includes freedom of conversion
Answer: Freedom of Religion includes freedom of conversion
 HP Subordinate Allied Services Prelims Test Series [12 Full Length Tests] with Answers
171.  The voting age in India was reduced from 21 years to 18 years by which constitutional amendment?
(A)        61st Constitution Amendment
(B)        65th Constitution Amendment
(C)        71st Constitution Amendment
(D)       73rd Constitution Amendment
Answer: 61st Constitution Amendment
172.  Which one of the following is the recent addition in the Electronic voting Machine by the Election Commission of India?
(A)        NOT
(B)        NOTE
(C)        NOTA
(D)       NOTHING
Answer: NOTA
173.  Which one of the following is not the classified category of parties according to the Election Commission of India?
(A)        National Parties
(B)        Regional Parties
(C)        State Parties
(D)       Registered (Unrecognized Parties)
Answer: Regional Parties
174.  What is the full form of PIL?
(A)        Public Interest Litigation
(B)        Private Interest Litigation
(C)        People’s Interest Litigation
(D)       Priority in Litigation
Answer: Public Interest Litigation
175.  Which one of the following is not the subject of the Concurrent List?
(A)        Marriage
(B)        Divorce
(C)        Price Control
(D)       Agriculture
Answer: Agriculture
176.  Which one of the following states does not have a bicameral legislature?
(A)        Jammu & Kashmir
(B)        Bihar
(C)        Uttar Pradesh
(D)       Himachal Pradesh
Answer: Himachal Pradesh
177.  Match the following and choose the correct answer from the given codes:
(i) Right to Constitutional Remedies                                1) Article 44
(ii) Uniform Civil Code                                                         2) Article 32
(iii) Free Legal Aid                                                                 3) Article 370
(iv) Special Provisions for Jammu & Kashmir               4) Article 39A
Codes:
(A)        (i)-(2), (ii)-(1), (iii)-(4), (iv)-(3)
(B)        (i)-(1), (ii)-(2), (iii)-(3), (iv)-(4)
(C)        (i)-(2), (ii)-(1), (iii)-(4), (iv)-(4)
(D)       (i)-(1), (ii)-(3), (iii)-(4), (iv)-(2)
Answer: (i)-(2), (ii)-(1), (iii)-(4), (iv)-(3)
178.  Right to Education is included under which Article of the Constitution?
(A)        Article 19
(B)        Article 20
(C)        Article 21A
(D)       Article 25
Answer: Article 21A
179.  What is the new name of the Planning Commission of India?
(A)        Pragati Ayog
(B)        NITI Ayog
(C)        Nyaya Ayog
(D)       National Planning Commission
Answer: NITI Ayog
180.  Match Political Parties with their election symbols and choose the correct answer from the given codes:
(i) BJP                           (1) Rail Engine
(ii) MNS                       (2) Lantern
(iii) AAP                        (3) Lotus
(iv) RJD                        (4) Broom
Codes:
(A)        (i)-(3), (ii)-(1), (iii)-(2), (iv)-(4)
(B)        (i)-(3), (ii)-(1), (iii)-(4), (iv)-(2)
(C)        (i)-(3), (ii)-(2), (iii)-(4), (iv)-(1)
(D)       (i)-(1), (ii)-(3), (iii)-(4), (iv)-(2)
181.  Which one of the following is not the tributary of the river Godavari?
(A)        Manjira
(B)        Dudhganga
(C)        Indravati
(D)       Wainganga
Answer: Dudhganga
182.  Which one of the following states of India has no podzolic soils?
(A)        Orissa
(B)        U.P.
(C)        Himachal Pradesh
(D)       Jammu & Kashmir
Answer: Orissa
183.  Western Rajasthan is ideal place for the development of………..energy.
(A)        Biomass
(B)        Hydel
(C)        Tidal
(D)       Solar
Answer: Solar
184.  Which group of cities has not been included in the list of proposed 100 smart cities in India?
(A)        Vishakhapatnam, Tirupati, Kakinada
(B)        Muzaffarpur, Bhagalpur, Bihar Sharif
(C)        Surat, Vadodara, Rajkot
(D)       Howrah, Burdwan, Siliguri
Answer: Howrah, Burdwan, Siliguri
185.  As per 2001 Census, million cities in India is:
(A)        12
(B)        53
(C)        23
(D)       35
Answer: 35
186.  Which one of the following was famous for Jute Industry?
(A)        Damodar Valley
(B)        Hooghly Valley
(C)        Yamuna Valley
(D)       Brahmaputra Valley
Answer: Hooghly Valley
187.  Which one of the following is recent U.N. framework on disaster management?
(A)        Yokohama Framework
(B)        Hyogo Framework
(C)        Sendai Framework
(D)       Uttarkashi Framework
Answer: Sendai Framework
188.  Which one of the following is not used as indicator of human development in India?
(A)        Increase in total fertility rate
(B)        Increase in crude death rate
(C)        Increase in female literacy rate
(D)       Increase in life expectancy rate
Answer: Increase in crude death rate
189.  Which one of the following regions has the highest biodiversity in India?
(A)        North-East India
(B)        North-west India
(C)        Central India
(D)       Indian Desert Region
Answer: North-East India
190.  The percentage of total urban population in India according to Census 2011 is:
(A)        31.16%
(B)        30.26%
(C)        32.16%
(D)       29.26%
Answer: 31.16%
 HP Subordinate Allied Services Prelims Test Series [12 Full Length Tests] with Answers
191.  Varanasi city is an example of:
(A)        Industrial city
(B)        Administrative city
(C)        Port city
(D)       Cultural city
Answer: Cultural city
192.  Drought prone area is broadly located between:
(A)        West Bengal to Arunachal Pradesh
(B)        Tamil Nadu to Andhra Pradesh
(C)        Kerala to Karnataka
(D)       Maharashtra to Punjab
Answer: Maharashtra to Punjab
193.  Floods occurred due to erratic behaviour of :
(A)        Glacier melt
(B)        Temperature increase
(C)        Monsoon
(D)       Population increase
Answer: Monsoon
194.  Which one of the following states is found in Seismic Zone V?
(A)        Maharashtra
(B)        Uttar Pradesh
(C)        Delhi
(D)       Bihar
Answer: Bihar
195.  Which of the following is passing through India?
(A)        Equator
(B)        Tropic of Cancer
(C)        Tropic of Capricorn
(D)       None of the above
Answer: Tropic of Cancer
196.  Which of the following states has Shipki La Pass?
(A)        Jammu & Kashmir
(B)        Uttarakhand
(C)        Himachal Pradesh
(D)       Sikkim
Answer: Himachal Pradesh
197.  Which species of tree is more vulnerable for forest fire due to presence of Turpentine oil in their leafs?
(A)        Pines/Chir
(B)        Cedar
(C)        Silver firs
(D)       None of the above
Answer: Pines/Chir
198.  Which statement is not correct about the earthquake waves?
(A)        Longitudinal and Secondary (Transverse) waves are more destructive waves than Rayleigh wave
(B)        Rayleigh waves are originated from epicentres not the focus
(C)        P-waves travel fastest and are the first wave recorded on the Seismogram
(D)       None of the above
Answer: Longitudinal and Secondary (Transverse) waves are more destructive waves than Rayleigh wave
199.  Which one of the following is not the effect of climate change?
(A)        Glacier retreat
(B)        Coral bleaching
(C)        Cold wave and heat wave
(D)       Deforestation
Answer: Deforestation
200.  Which costal states of India are more vulnerable to tropical cyclone?
(A)        Tamil Nadu- Andhra Pradesh-Orissa Coastal region
(B)        Maharashtra- Gujarat Coastal region
(C)        Karnataka-Goa Coastal region
(D)       All of the above
Answer: Tamil Nadu- Andhra Pradesh-Orissa Coastal region

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